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Imagine...

StephenZA

Well-known member
Is there an official legal definition of 'consent' or does it have different meanings for different situations?
 

sledger

Spanish_Vicente
The Sexual Offences Act states that consent will be present when “a person…agrees by choice, and has the freedom and capacity to make a choice”.
 

Burgey

Well-known member
I can’t think of a circumstance where a court would allow someone to retrospectively withdraw consent as a basis for a sexual assault charge.

I could see a civil case based on misrepresentation in places where soliciting is legal.
 

sledger

Spanish_Vicente
The Sexual Offences Act states that consent will be present when “a person…agrees by choice, and has the freedom and capacity to make a choice”.
Going back to this definition (which obviously isn't the exact definition used in Aus law), I can only imagine the logic used is that the complainant in this was was so overwhelmed by the offer of financial gain that it destroyed her capacity to consent/make a free choice.

In the same way someone who is threatened with violence does not really have a free choice, I guess you could argue that someone who's economic situation is incredibly poor to the point of barely being able to survive does not have a "free" choice when told "If you do X I will pay you money".

Not that this necessarily happened in this case, I don't know if it did or not, but I guess that is how I would try to argue it if I had to.
 

sledger

Spanish_Vicente
Link to ACT Court of Appeal decision dismissing his appeal

Livas v The Queen [2015] ACTCA 54 (13 August 2015)

Seems the ACT Crimes Act specifically provides for consent being vitiated by a fraudulent misrepresentation.
Cheers, thanks for this. Will read later on.

It's interesting that the Act does this though. As the UK equivalent doesn't do anything like that, and the courts have ruled that the only types of misrepresentation that can destroy consent are those which relate to the nature of the act itself, or possibly your identity, in some situations.
 

sledger

Spanish_Vicente
Yeah, and tbh I can see the logic for limiting it to those circumstances
Yeah, I think I would generally agree with that limitation tbh.

Like with most things involving consent and the law, I guess the question that needs to be asked (given that 100% autonomy is not possible) is: how free does a person's decision need to be from external influences in order for it to be considered their own/autonomous?
 

Magrat Garlick

Global Moderator
tempted to complain to the institutional review board to see whether sledger's posts constitute attempts to research general public sentiment
 

trundler

Well-known member
What's the position on stealthing? It is a violation of conditional consent, potentially dangerous and arguably from deception as to the nature of the act.
 

Daemon

Well-known member
We've got a bill that's been introduced recently which covers a range of things like decriminalising suicides and repealing marital rape immunity. One of the proposed changes is criminalising the procurement of *** where consent is obtained by deception or false representation.

I understand the (reported) intention is to cover stealthing and lying about STDs, but depending on how it's worded it may apply to the OP as well.
 

sledger

Spanish_Vicente
Lying about STDs (or lack there of) is not a misrepresentation that can be used as the basis for a rape conviction here. It is a separate criminal offence though.
 
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